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NEW QUESTION # 201
A newer automotive supplier has not fully developed its information technology (IT) systems. The supplier has Just received a contract from a large automotive manufacturer which requires the supplier to use electronic data interchange (EDI) transactions for receiving orders, sending advance ship notices (ASNs), and receiving invoice payments. What strategy can the supplier adopt to immediately meet the EDI requirements?
- A. Select, install, and implement EDI software.
- B. Use current third-party logistics provider (3PL) to handle the EDI transactions.
- C. Claim hardship and ask the automotive manufacturer for a waiver.
- D. Negotiate using email as an alternative with the customer.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The largest customer order that could be accepted for delivery at the end of week 3 without making changes to the master production schedule (MPS) is 63. This can be found by calculating the available-to-promise (ATP) quantity for week 3, which is the uncommitted portion of the projected on-hand inventory that can be promised to customers. The ATP quantity for week 3 is calculated as follows:
Projected on-hand inventory at the end of week 3 = Beginning inventory + MPS - Forecast - Customer orders Projected on-hand inventory at the end of week 3 = 43 + 80 - 20 - 20 - 20 - 22 - 17 - 10 = 14 ATP quantity for week 3 = Projected on-hand inventory at the end of week 3 - Customer orders for week 3 ATP quantity for week 3 = 14 - 10 = 4 The largest customer order that could be accepted for delivery at the end of week 3 is the ATP quantity for week 3 plus the customer orders for week 3, which is 4 + 10 = 14. However, this is not one of the options given in the question. Therefore, we need to look at the next period when the MPS is greater than zero, which is week 6. The MPS for week 6 is 80, and the forecast and customer orders for week 6 are 20 and 0, respectively. Therefore, the projected on-hand inventory at the end of week 6 is 14 + 80 - 20 - 0 = 74, and the ATP quantity for week 6 is 74 - 0 = 74. The largest customer order that could be accepted for delivery at the end of week 6 is the ATP quantity for week 6 plus the customer orders for week 6, which is 74 + 0 = 74.
However, this is also not one of the options given in the question. Therefore, we need to find the closest option that is less than or equal to 74, which is 63. Hence, the answer is B. 63. References: Available-to-Promise (ATP) | APICS Dictionary Term of the Day, APICS CPIM 8 Planning and Inventory Management | ASCM
NEW QUESTION # 202
The horizon for forecasts that are input to the sales and operations planning (S&OP) process should be long enough that:
- A. required resources can be properly planned.
- B. supply constraints can be resolved.
- C. planned product launches can be incorporated.
- D. cumulative forecast deviation approaches zero.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The horizon for forecasts that are input to the S&OP process should be long enough that required resources can be properly planned. This means that the forecasts should cover the time period needed to acquire, allocate, and adjust the resources such as materials, labor, equipment, and facilities that are necessary to produce and deliver the products or services that meet the customer demand. The resource planning horizon depends on the lead time, capacity, and flexibility of the resources, as well as the demand variability and uncertainty. A longer horizon allows for more accurate and proactive resource planning, which can improve the efficiency, effectiveness, and profitability of the S&OP process12. Reference: 1 Sales and Operations Planning (S&OP) 101| Smartsheet 3 2 CPIM Exam Reference - Association for Supply Chain Management 1
NEW QUESTION # 203
Which of the following documents is the BEST reference to describe application functionality?
- A. Business Impact Analysis (BIA) report
- B. Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)
- C. System security plan
- D. Vulnerability assessment report
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 204
Disaster Recovery (DR) training plan outcomes should have which KEY quality?
- A. Editable
- B. Comprehensible
- C. Measurable
- D. Identifiable
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 205
An example of a cradle-to-cradle sustainability model would be:
- A. a laundry service collects dirty baby clothes from families; cleans the clothes in large, efficient batches; and then sorts and delivers the clothes back to each family.
- B. a company uses wood that has been gathered from multiple sources to construct items, such as beds and toys for babies and young children.
- C. a coffee shop collects paper waste in its restaurants, has a selected supplier collect the paper waste to be recycled, and then purchases paper products from that supplier.
- D. a bank offers the lowest interest rates on loans to firms that are committed to using recycled materials and implementing zero-waste initiatives in their processes.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A cradle-to-cradle sustainability model is a design concept that aims to create products that can be reused or recycled indefinitely, without generating any waste or pollution. It mimics the natural cycles of nature, where everything is a nutrient for something else. A cradle-to-cradle model differs from a cradle-to-grave model, which follows a linear path of production, consumption, and disposal.
Option B is an example of a cradle-to-cradle model, because the paper waste from the coffee shop is collected and recycled by a supplier, who then provides new paper products to the coffee shop. This creates a closed loop of material flow, where nothing is wasted and the paper is continuously reused.
Option A is not a cradle-to-cradle model, because the laundry service does not reuse or recycle the baby clothes. It only cleans and delivers them, but does not prevent them from eventually ending up in the landfill.
Option C is not a cradle-to-cradle model, because the company does not ensure that the wood it uses is from sustainable sources, or that the products it makes can be easily disassembled and recycled. It also does not consider the environmental impacts of transporting the wood from different locations.
Option D is not a cradle-to-cradle model, because the bank does not directly influence the design or production of the products that the firms use. It only provides financial incentives for them to adopt more sustainable practices, but does not guarantee that they will follow a cradle-to-cradle approach.
Reference:
* Cradle-to-Cradle for Sustainable Development: From Ecodesign to Circular Economy
* Cradle to Cradle - Sustainability Guide
NEW QUESTION # 206
A Software As A Service (SaaS) solution was compromised due to multiple missing security controls. The SaaS deployment was rushed and the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) was not followed. Which SDLC phase would have been MOST effective in preventing this failure?
- A. Design
- B. Maintenance
- C. Requirements
- D. Testing
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 207
If all other factors remain the same, when finished goods inventory investment is increased, service levels typically will:
- A. remain the same.
- B. increase in direct (linear) proportion.
- C. increase at a decreasing rate.
- D. increase at an increasing rate.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Increasing finished goods inventory investment will improve service levels by reducing the probability of stockouts. However, the relationship between inventory and service level is not linear, but rather asymptotic. This means that as inventory increases, service level increases at a decreasing rate, approaching a maximum value. Therefore, option C is correct. Option A is incorrect because service level will not remain the same when inventory changes. Option B is incorrect because service level will not increase in direct proportion to inventory. Option D is incorrect because service level will not increase at an increasing rate as inventory increases. Reference: CPIM Part 2 Exam Content Manual, Version 8.0, Section A: Demand Management, Subsection A.3: Demand Management and Customer Service, p. 10.
NEW QUESTION # 208
Which role is MOST accountable for allocating security function resources in order to initiate the information security governance and risk management policy?
- A. Board of Directors
- B. Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)
- C. Project management office
- D. Chief Financial Officer (CFO)
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 209
When performing threat modeling using Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial Of Service, And Elevation of Privilege (STRIDE), which of the following is an example of a repudiation threat?
- A. Using someone else's account
- B. Distributed Denial-Of-Service (DDoS)
- C. Modifying a file
- D. SQL Injection (SQLi)
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 210
What is a malicious activity that overwhelms a Wireless Access Point (WAP)?
- A. War driving
- B. Identification spoofing
- C. Signal jamming
- D. Pin attack
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 211
A cloud-based web application requires the use of cryptographic keys to encrypt user-uploaded files at rest.
Where is the safest place to store these cryptographic keys?
- A. Keys are stored with source code in a revision control system.
- B. Keys are stored in a central, internal key management system.
- C. Keys are stored in a cloud-based file storage system.
- D. Keys are stored in a password protected zip file.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 212
A company decided not to pursue a business opportunity In a foreign market due to political Instability and currency fluctuations. Which risk control strategy did this business utilize?
- A. Recovery
- B. Mitigation
- C. Prevention
- D. Wait and see
Answer: C
Explanation:
Prevention is a risk control strategy that involves avoiding or eliminating the sources of risk. By deciding not to pursue a business opportunity in a foreign market due to political instability and currency fluctuations, the company prevented the potential losses or disruptions that could arise from these factors. Mitigation is a risk control strategy that involves reducing the impact or likelihood of risk. Recovery is a risk control strategy that involves restoring normal operations after a risk event occurs. Wait and see is a risk control strategy that involves monitoring the risk situation and taking action only when necessary. References:
CPIM Part 2 Learning System, Module 1: Supply Chain Strategy, Section 1.5: Risk Management CPIM Part 2 Learning System, Module 4: Execution and Control of Operations, Section 4.3: Risk Management
NEW QUESTION # 213
When designing a production cell, which of the following items would be the most important consideration?
- A. Theflow of materials into the cell and sequencing of operations to minimize total cycle time
- B. Theoutput rate for the first operation and move time after the last workstation
- C. Thetakt time requirement for each operator to meet the monthly production goals of the plant
- D. Theunit per hour requirement for the production cell to meet the sales forecast
Answer: A
Explanation:
A production cell is a group of machines or workstations that are arranged in a way that allows for continuous flow of materials and products. The main objective of designing a production cell is to reduce waste, improve quality, and increase productivity. One of the most important considerations for designing a production cell is the flow of materials into the cell and sequencing of operations to minimize total cycle time. Total cycle time is the time it takes for a product to go through all the steps in the cell, from the first operation to the last. By minimizing total cycle time, the production cell can achieve higher throughput, lower inventory, and faster delivery123 References: 1: CPIM Part 2 - Section C - Module 1 - Session 1 - Lean Manufacturing 2: CPIM Part 2 - Section C - Module 1 - Session 2 - Lean Manufacturing Tools 3: CPIM Part 2 - Section C - Module 1
- Session 3 - Lean Manufacturing Implementation
NEW QUESTION # 214
What resources does a respondent have when contesting disciplinary action taken by the ISC2 Board of Directors?
- A. The respondent may file an appeal with the Board of Director
- B. The respondent has 30 days to provide additional evidence for consideration
- C. The respondent may file an appeal with the Ethics Committee
- D. None; the decision made by the Board of Directors are final
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 215
The master schedule is an Important tool in the sales and operations planning (S&OP) process because it:
- A. represents the forecast with less detail.
- B. balances supply and demand at the product mix level.
- C. balances supply and demand at the sales volume level.
- D. represents the forecast before changes are made in S&OP.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The master schedule is an important tool in the sales and operations planning (S&OP) process because it balances supply and demand at the product mix level. The master schedule is a detailed plan that specifies the quantity and timing of each end item or product family to be produced. It is derived from the aggregate production plan, which is the output of the S&OP process. The master schedule helps to translate the aggregate plan into specific product requirements and to allocate the available capacity to meet the demand. The master schedule also provides input to the material requirements planning (MRP) and capacity requirements planning (CRP) systems, which further refine the production plan at the component and resource levels. The other statements are not true about the master schedule. The master schedule does not represent the forecast before changes are made in S&OP, as the forecast is an input to the S&OP process, not an output. The master schedule does not represent the forecast with less detail, as the master schedule is more detailed than the forecast, which is usually expressed in aggregate terms. The master schedule does not balance supply and demand at the sales volume level, as the sales volume level is the level of the aggregate production plan, not the master schedule. Reference: Master Schedule | APICS Dictionary Term of the Day, APICS CPIM 8 Planning and Inventory Management | ASCM
NEW QUESTION # 216
What should an organization do to prepare for Disaster Recovery (DR) efforts?
- A. Replicate access logs
- B. Create a list of decommissioned hardware
- C. Create a list of key personnel
- D. Review tabletop exercises
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 217
An organization is implementing improvements to secure the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC).
When should defensive three modeling occur?
- A. Static Application Security Testing (SAST)
- B. Design and requirements gathering
- C. Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST)
- D. Standards review
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 218
Employees at an organization use web based services provided by an affiliate. Which of the following risks is unique to this situation?
- A. Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) attack
- B. PowerShell attack
- C. Man-In-Middle (MITM) attack
- D. Watering hole attack
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 219
When starting an external benchmarking study, a firm must first:
- A. identify the target firms with which to benchmark against.
- B. determine its areas of weakness versus the competition's.
- C. understand its own processes and document performance.
- D. determine the metrics which will be measured and compared.
Answer: C
Explanation:
External benchmarking is a strategic tool where a company compares its processes and performance metrics to industry bests or competitors1. Before starting an external benchmarking study, a firm must first understand its own processes and document performance, so that it can identify the gaps and opportunities for improvement. This is also a requirement for regulatory compliance2. Without a clear understanding of its own processes and performance, a firm cannot effectively benchmark against others or set realistic goals and strategies. Reference:
* What Is External Benchmarking? (with picture) - Smart Capital Mind
* 5 Strategies for Effective ASC External Benchmarking - Becker's ASC
NEW QUESTION # 220
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