[2025] Cybersecurity-Audit-Certificate Actual Exam Dumps, Cybersecurity-Audit-Certificate Practice Test
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NEW QUESTION # 20
Within the NIST core cybersecurity framework, which function is associated with using organizational understanding to minimize risk to systems, assets, and data?
- A. Detect
- B. Respond
- C. Recover
- D. Identify
Answer: D
Explanation:
Within the NIST core cybersecurity framework, the identify function is associated with using organizational understanding to minimize risk to systems, assets, and data. This is because the identify function helps organizations to develop an organizational understanding of their cybersecurity risk management posture, as well as the threats, vulnerabilities, and impacts that could affect their business objectives. The other functions are not directly related to using organizational understanding, but rather focus on detecting (A), recovering C, or responding (D) to cybersecurity events.
NEW QUESTION # 21
Which of the following includes step-by-step directions for accomplishing a specific task?
- A. Guidelines
- B. Procedures
- C. Baselines
- D. Policies
Answer: B
Explanation:
Procedures are detailed, step-by-step instructions that describe exactly how to perform a particular task or process. They are designed to ensure consistency and efficiency in the execution of tasks, and they are essential in maintaining the reliability of an organization's operations, especially in the context of cybersecurity.
NEW QUESTION # 22
Which of the following is the BEST indication that an organization's vulnerability management process is operating effectively?
- A. Remediation efforts are communicated to management
- B. The vulnerability program is reviewed annually.
- C. Remediation efforts are prioritized.
- D. The vulnerability program is formally approved
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The BEST indication that an organization's vulnerability management process is operating effectively is that remediation efforts are prioritized. This is because prioritizing remediation efforts helps to ensure that the most critical and urgent vulnerabilities are addressed first, based on their severity, impact, and exploitability.
Prioritizing remediation efforts also helps to optimize the use of resources and time for mitigating vulnerabilities and reducing risks. The other options are not as indicative of an effective vulnerability management process, because they either involve communicating (A), approving (B), or reviewing C aspects that are not directly related to remediating vulnerabilities.
NEW QUESTION # 23
Which intrusion detection system component is responsible for collecting data in the form of network packets, log files, or system call traces?
- A. Analyzers
- B. Sensors
- C. Administration modules
- D. Packet filters
Answer: B
Explanation:
The intrusion detection system component that is responsible for collecting data in the form of network packets, log files, or system call traces is sensors. This is because sensors are components of an intrusion detection system that are deployed on various locations or points of the network or system, such as routers, switches, servers, etc., and that capture and collect data from the network traffic or system activities. Sensors then forward the collected data to another component of the intrusion detection system, such as analyzers, for further processing and analysis. The other options are not components of an intrusion detection system that are responsible for collecting data in the form of network packets, log files, or system call traces, but rather different components or techniques that are related to intrusion detection or prevention, such as packet filters (A), analyzers (B), or administration modules C.
NEW QUESTION # 24
Which of the following cloud characteristics describes computing capabilities that can be provisioned without human interaction from the service provider?
- A. On-demand self-service
- B. Measured service
- C. Agile service management
- D. Broad network access
Answer: A
Explanation:
The characteristic of cloud computing that allows users to provision computing capabilities without human interaction from the service provider is known as on-demand self-service. This feature enables users to automatically manage their computing resources, such as server time and network storage, as needed, which provides agility and flexibility in resource management.
NEW QUESTION # 25
Which of the following BEST characterizes security mechanisms for mobile devices?
- A. Comparatively weak relative to workstations
- B. Configurable and reliable across device types
- C. Easy to control through mobile device management
- D. Inadequate for organizational use
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The BEST characteristic that describes security mechanisms for mobile devices is easy to control through mobile device management. This is because mobile device management is a technique that allows organizations to centrally manage and secure mobile devices, such as smartphones, tablets, laptops, etc., that are used by their employees or customers. Mobile device management helps to enforce security policies, configure settings, install applications, monitor usage, wipe data, etc., on mobile devices remotely and efficiently. The other options are not characteristics that describe security mechanisms for mobile devices, but rather different aspects or factors that affect security mechanisms for mobile devices, such as weakness (B), inadequacy C, or reliability (D).
NEW QUESTION # 26
What is the MAIN objective of an intrusion detection system (IDS) policy?
- A. To establish the actions to be taken by security personnel in the event an intruder is detected
- B. To define the assets covered by intrusion detection systems (IDSs)
- C. To establish the criteria and reporting requirements associated with intrusion events
- D. To define the response time required of security personnel when an intrusion is detected
Answer: C
Explanation:
The main objective of an intrusion detection system (IDS) policy is to establish the criteria for what constitutes an intrusion event and the reporting requirements once such an event is detected. This includes defining what activities are considered anomalies, ensuring that security breaches are identified, and specifying how and to whom these incidents should be reported. The policy sets the foundation for how intrusions are detected, assessed, and managed within an organization's network infrastructure1.
NEW QUESTION # 27
Which of the following are politically motivated hackers who target specific individuals or organizations to achieve various ideological ends?
- A. Script kiddies
- B. Cybercriminals
- C. Malware researchers
- D. Hacktivists
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Hacktivists are politically motivated hackers who target specific individuals or organizations to achieve various ideological ends. They may use various methods such as defacing websites, launching denial-of-service attacks, leaking confidential information, or spreading propaganda to advance their causes or protest against perceived injustices.
NEW QUESTION # 28
What would be an IS auditor's BEST response to an IT managers statement that the risk associated with the use of mobile devices in an organizational setting is the same as for any other device?
- A. The ability to wipe mobile devices and disable connectivity adequately mitigates additional
- B. The risk associated with mobile devices cannot be mitigated with similar controls for workstations.
- C. The risk associated with mobile devices is less than that of other devices and systems.
- D. Replication of privileged access and the greater likelihood of physical loss increases risk levels.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The BEST response to an IT manager's statement that the risk associated with the use of mobile devices in an organizational setting is the same as for any other device is that replication of privileged access and the greater likelihood of physical loss increases risk levels. Mobile devices pose unique risks to an organization due to their portability, connectivity, and functionality. Mobile devices may store or access sensitive data or systems that require privileged access, which can be compromised if the device is lost, stolen, or hacked. Mobile devices also have a higher chance of being misplaced or taken by unauthorized parties than other devices.
NEW QUESTION # 29
Which of the following BEST facilitates the development of metrics for repotting to senior management on vulnerability management efforts?
- A. Reviewing business impact analysis (BIA) results
- B. Regularly benchmarking the number of new vulnerabilities identified with industry peers
- C. Monitoring the frequency of vulnerability assessments using automated scans
- D. Tracking vulnerabilities and the remediation efforts to mitigate them
Answer: D
Explanation:
The BEST feature that facilitates the development of metrics for reporting to senior management on vulnerability management efforts is tracking vulnerabilities and the remediation efforts to mitigate them. This is because tracking vulnerabilities and remediation efforts helps to measure and monitor the performance and effectiveness of vulnerability management efforts, by providing quantifiable and objective data on the number, severity, impact, status, and resolution time of vulnerabilities. Tracking vulnerabilities and remediation efforts also helps to identify and communicate any gaps or issues in vulnerability management efforts to senior management and other stakeholders. The other options are not features that facilitate the development of metrics for reporting to senior management on vulnerability management efforts, but rather different aspects or factors that affect vulnerability management efforts, such as reviewing business impact analysis (BIA) results (A), benchmarking with industry peers (B), or monitoring the frequency of vulnerability assessments (D).
NEW QUESTION # 30
Which of the following is an objective of public key infrastructure (PKI)?
- A. Approving the algorithm to be used during data transmission
- B. Securely distributing secret keys to the communicating parties
- C. Creating the private-public key pair for secure communications
- D. Independently authenticating the validity of the sender's public key
Answer: D
Explanation:
An objective of public key infrastructure (PKI) is to independently authenticate the validity of the sender's public key. PKI is a system that uses cryptographic keys to secure communications and transactions. PKI involves a trusted third party called a certificate authority (CA) that issues digital certificates that link a public key with an identity. The recipient can use the CA's public key to verify the sender's certificate and public key.
NEW QUESTION # 31
The most common use of asymmetric algorithms is to:
- A. encrypt data streams.
- B. distribute asymmetric keys.
- C. encrypt bulk data.
- D. distribute symmetric keys.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Asymmetric algorithms are commonly used to securely distribute symmetric keys. The asymmetric encryption process involves a public key for encryption and a private key for decryption. This method ensures that even if the public key is intercepted, the encrypted data cannot be decrypted without the corresponding private key. Symmetric keys are then used for the bulk encryption of data due to their efficiency in processing large volumes of information.
Reference = The use of asymmetric algorithms for key distribution is a well-established practice in the field of cryptography. It is mentioned in various ISACA resources that asymmetric encryption, such as RSA and ECC, is crucial for secure communications, especially for the initial exchange of symmetric keys, which are then used for encrypting data streams or bulk data123.
NEW QUESTION # 32
What is the FIRST activity associated with a successful cyber attack?
- A. Exploitation
- B. Maintaining a presence
- C. Creating attack tools
- D. Reconnaissance
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The FIRST activity associated with a successful cyber attack is reconnaissance. This is because reconnaissance is a phase of the cyber attack lifecycle that involves gathering information about the target organization or system, such as its network topology, IP addresses, open ports, services, vulnerabilities, etc. Reconnaissance helps to identify potential entry points and weaknesses that can be exploited by the attackers in later phases of the attack. The other options are not the first activity associated with a successful cyber attack, but rather follow after reconnaissance in the cyber attack lifecycle, such as exploitation (A), maintaining a presence C, or creating attack tools (D).
NEW QUESTION # 33
What is the PRIMARY purpose of creating a security architecture?
- A. To visually show gaps in information security controls
- B. To provide senior management a measure of information security maturity
- C. To map out how security controls interact with an organization's systems
- D. To create a long-term information security strategy
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The PRIMARY purpose of creating a security architecture is to create a long-term information security strategy that aligns with the organization's business goals and objectives. A security architecture defines the vision, principles, standards, policies, and guidelines for how security will be implemented and managed across the organization's systems, networks, and data.
NEW QUESTION # 34
in key protection/management, access should be aligned with which of the following?
- A. Least privilege
- B. System limitation
- C. Position responsibilities
- D. Role descriptions
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
In key protection/management, access should be aligned with the principle of least privilege. This means that users should only have the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks and no more. This reduces the risk of unauthorized access, misuse, or compromise of sensitive data or systems.
NEW QUESTION # 35
Cyber threat intelligence aims to research and analyze trends and technical developments in which of the following areas?
- A. Cybersecurity operations management
- B. Cybercrime, hacktism. and espionage
- C. Industry-specific security regulator
- D. Cybersecurity risk scenarios
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cyber threat intelligence aims to research and analyze trends and technical developments in the areas of cybercrime, hacktivism, and espionage. These are the main sources of malicious cyber activities that pose risks to organizations and individuals. Cyber threat intelligence helps to understand the motivations, capabilities, tactics, techniques, and procedures of various threat actors and groups.
NEW QUESTION # 36
In cloud computing, which type of hosting is MOST appropriate for a large organization that wants greater control over the environment?
- A. Shared hosting
- B. Public hosting
- C. Private hosting
- D. Hybrid hosting
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
In cloud computing, the type of hosting that is MOST appropriate for a large organization that wants greater control over the environment is private hosting. Private hosting is a type of cloud service model where the cloud infrastructure is dedicated to a single organization and hosted either on-premise or off-premise by a third-party provider. Private hosting offers more control over the security, performance, customization, and compliance of the cloud environment than other types of hosting.
NEW QUESTION # 37
Security awareness training is MOST effective against which type of threat?
- A. Denial of service
- B. Command injection
- C. Social injection
- D. Social engineering
Answer: D
Explanation:
Security awareness training is MOST effective against social engineering threats. This is because social engineering is a type of attack that exploits human psychology and behavior to manipulate or trick users into revealing sensitive or confidential information, or performing actions that compromise security. Security awareness training helps to educate users about the common types and techniques of social engineering attacks, such as phishing, vishing, baiting, etc., and how to recognize and avoid them. Security awareness training also helps to foster a culture of security within the organization and empower users to report any suspicious or malicious activities. The other options are not types of threats that security awareness training is most effective against, but rather types of attacks that exploit technical vulnerabilities or flaws in systems or applications, such as command injection (A), denial of service (B), or SQL injection (D).
NEW QUESTION # 38
Which of the following is a limitation of intrusion detection systems (IDS)?
- A. Limited evidence on intrusive activity
- B. Weak passwords for the administration console
- C. Lack of Interface with system tools
- D. Application-level vulnerabilities
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A limitation of intrusion detection systems (IDS) is that they cannot detect application-level vulnerabilities. An IDS is a tool that monitors network traffic or system activity and alerts on any suspicious or malicious events.
However, an IDS cannot analyze the logic or functionality of applications and identify vulnerabilities such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting, or broken authentication.
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which of the following is the MAIN purpose of system hardening?
- A. To reduce vulnerability by limiting attack vectors
- B. To protect the system from all possible threats
- C. To enforce the principle of least privilege
- D. To create a security-conscious environment
Answer: A
Explanation:
System hardening is a process that involves implementing security measures to reduce the system's vulnerability. The main purpose of this process is to limit the number of attack vectors that can be exploited by threats. By removing unnecessary programs, closing unused ports, and applying security patches, the system's attack surface is reduced, making it more difficult for attackers to find vulnerabilities to exploit.
NEW QUESTION # 40
Cyber threat intelligence aims to research and analyze trends and technical developments in which of the following areas?
- A. Cybersecurity operations management
- B. Cybercrime, hacktism. and espionage
- C. Industry-specific security regulator
- D. Cybersecurity risk scenarios
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Cyber threat intelligence aims to research and analyze trends and technical developments in the areas of cybercrime, hacktivism, and espionage. These are the main sources of malicious cyber activities that pose risks to organizations and individuals. Cyber threat intelligence helps to understand the motivations, capabilities, tactics, techniques, and procedures of various threat actors and groups.
NEW QUESTION # 41
What would be an IS auditor's BEST response to an IT managers statement that the risk associated with the use of mobile devices in an organizational setting is the same as for any other device?
- A. The ability to wipe mobile devices and disable connectivity adequately mitigates additional
- B. The risk associated with mobile devices cannot be mitigated with similar controls for workstations.
- C. The risk associated with mobile devices is less than that of other devices and systems.
- D. Replication of privileged access and the greater likelihood of physical loss increases risk levels.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The BEST response to an IT manager's statement that the risk associated with the use of mobile devices in an organizational setting is the same as for any other device is that replication of privileged access and the greater likelihood of physical loss increases risk levels. Mobile devices pose unique risks to an organization due to their portability, connectivity, and functionality. Mobile devices may store or access sensitive data or systems that require privileged access, which can be compromised if the device is lost, stolen, or hacked. Mobile devices also have a higher chance of being misplaced or taken by unauthorized parties than other devices.
NEW QUESTION # 42
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