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Governance & Management of IT: This section is designed to evaluate one’s capability to identify different critical concerns and recommend specific enterprise practices to safeguard and support information governance and related technologies. These include the following:
- IT Management – IT resource management; service provider management and acquisition; quality management and quality assurance of IT; IT performance reporting and monitoring.
- IT Governance – IT governance & IT strategy; IT policies, procedures, and standards; IT-related frameworks; organizational and enterprise structures; enterprise risk management; maturity models;
NEW QUESTION 501
Which of the following ISO/OSI layers performs transformations on data to provide a standardized
application interface and to provide common communication services such as encryption?
- A. Transport layer
- B. Session layer
- C. Presentation layer
- D. Application layer
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Information System Acquisition, Development and Implementation
Explanation/Reference:
The presentation layer (ISO/OSI layer 6) performs transformations on data to provide a standardized
application interface and to provide common communication services such as encryption, text compression
and reformatting. The function of the presentation layer is to ensure that the format of the data submitted
by the application layer conforms to the applicable network standard.
Source: Information Systems Audit and Control Association, Certified Information Systems Auditor 2002
review manual, Chapter 3: Technical Infrastructure and Operational Practices (page 119).
NEW QUESTION 502
During data migration, which of the following BEST prevents integrity issues when multiple processes within the migration program are attempting to write to the same table in the databases?
- A. Authentication controls
- B. Concurrency controls
- C. Normalization controls
- D. Database limit controls
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 503
An organization shares some of its customers' personally Identifiable Information (PH) with third-party suppliers for business purposes. What is MOST important for the IS auditor to evaluate to ensure that risk associated with leakage of privacy-related data during transmission is effectively managed?
- A. Encrypting and masking of customer data
- B. The third party's privacy and data security policies
- C. Service and operational level agreements
- D. Nondisclosure and indemnity agreements
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 504
An organization is considering moving one of its critical business applications to a cloud hosting service.
The cloud provider may not provide the same level of security for this application as the organization.
Which of the following will provide the BEST information to help maintain the security posture?
- A. Vulnerability assessment
- B. Risk governance framework
- C. Cloud security strategy
- D. Risk assessment
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
NEW QUESTION 505
When determining whether a project in the design phase will meet organizational objectives, what is BEST to compare against the business case?
- A. Implementation
- B. plan Project plan
- C. Requirements analysis
- D. Project budget provisions
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 506
Which of the following is a feature of an intrusion detection system (IDS)?
- A. Identifying weaknesses in the policy definition
- B. Blocking access to particular sites on the Internet
- C. Preventing certain users from accessing specific servers
- D. Gathering evidence on attack attempts
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
An IDS can gather evidence on intrusive activity such as an attack or penetration attempt. Identifying
weaknesses in the policy definition is a limitation of an IDS. Choices C and D are features of firewalls, while
choice B requires a manual review, and therefore is outside the functionality of an IDS.
NEW QUESTION 507
An IS auditor is reviewing a software-based configuration. Which of the following represents the GREATEST vulnerability? The firewall software:
- A. is configured as a virtual private network (VPN) endpoint.
- B. is installed on an operating system with default settings.
- C. is configured with an implicit deny rule as the last rule in the rule base.
- D. has been configured with rules permitting or denying access to systems or networks.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Default settings are often published and provide an intruder with predictable configuration information, which allows easier system compromise. To mitigate this risk, firewall software should be installed on a system using a hardened operating system that has limited functionality, providing only the services necessary to support the firewall software. Choices A, C and D are normal or best practices for firewall configurations.
NEW QUESTION 508
The operations team of an organization has reported an IS security attack. Which of the following should be the FIRST step for the security incident response team?
- A. Report results to management.
- B. Perform a damage assessment.
- C. Prioritize resources for corrective action.
- D. Document lessons learned.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 509
One advantage of monetary unit sampling is the fact that:
- A. large-value population items are segregated and audited separately
- B. it can easily be applied manually when computer resources are not available
- C. it increases the likelihood of selecting material items from the population
- D. results are stated in terms of the frequency of items in error
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Information System Acquisition, Development and Implementation
NEW QUESTION 510
To prevent IP spoofing attacks, a firewall should be configured to drop a packet if:
- A. a reset flag (RST) is turned on for the TCP connection.
- B. dynamic routing is used instead of static routing.
- C. it has a broadcast address in the destination field.
- D. the source routing field is enabled.
Answer: D
Explanation:
IP spoofing takes advantage of the source-routing option in the IP protocol. With this option enabled, an attacker can insert a spoofed source IP address. The packet will travel the network according to the information within the source-routing field, bypassing the logic in each router, including dynamic and static routing (choice D). Choices B and C do not have any relation to IP spoofing attacks. If a packet has a broadcast destination address (choice B), it will be sent to all addresses in the subnet. Turning on the reset flag (RST) (choice C) is part of the normal procedure to end a TCP connection.
NEW QUESTION 511
Which of the following is a feature of Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) in wireless networks?
- A. Session keys are dynamic
- B. Source addresses are not encrypted or authenticated
- C. Keys are static and shared
- D. Private symmetric keys are used
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
WPA uses dynamic session keys, achieving stronger encryption than wireless encryption privacy (WEP), which operates with static keys (same key is used for everyone in the wireless network). All other choices are weaknesses of WEP.
NEW QUESTION 512
Which of the following type of network service maps Domain Names to network IP addresses or network IP
addresses to Domain Names?
- A. DNS
- B. Directory Service
- C. Network Management
- D. DHCP
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Information System Operations, Maintenance and Support
Explanation/Reference:
Domain Name System(DNS) - Translates the names of network nodes into network IP address.
For your exam you should know below information about network services:
In computer networking, a network service is an application running at the network application layer and
above, that provides data storage, manipulation, presentation, communication or other capability which is
often implemented using a client-server or peer-to-peer architecture based on application layer network
protocols.
Each service is usually provided by a server component running on one or more computers (often a
dedicated server computer offering multiple services) and accessed via a network by client components
running on other devices. However, the client and server components can both be run on the same
machine.
Clients and servers will often have a user interface, and sometimes other hardware associated with them.
Different types of network services are as follows:
Network File System - Network File System (NFS) is a distributed file system protocol originally developed
by Sun Microsystems in 1984, allowing a user on a client computer to access files over a network much like
local storage is accessed.
Remote Access Service - Remote Access Services (RAS) refers to any combination of hardware and
software to enable the remote access tools or information that typically reside on a network of IT devices.
Directory Services - A directory service is the software system that stores, organizes and provides access
to information in a directory. In software engineering, a directory is a map between names and values. It
allows the lookup of values given a name, similar to a dictionary. As a word in a dictionary may have
multiple definitions, in a directory, a name may be associated with multiple, different pieces of information.
Likewise, as a word may have different parts of speech and different definitions, a name in a directory may
have many different types of data.
Network Management - In computer networks, network management refers to the activities, methods,
procedures, and tools that pertain to the operation, administration, maintenance, and provisioning of
networked systems. Network management is essential to command and control practices and is generally
carried out of a network operations center.
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) - The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a
standardized networking protocol used on Internet Protocol (IP) networks for dynamically distributing
network configuration parameters, such as IP addresses for interfaces and services. With DHCP,
computers request IP addresses and networking parameters automatically from a DHCP server, reducing
the need for a network administrator or a user to configure these settings manually.
Email service - Provides the ability, through a terminal or PC connected to a communication network, to
send an entrusted message to another individual or group of people.
Print Services - Provide the ability, typically through a print server on a network, to manage and execute
print request services from other devices on the network
Domain Name System(DNS) - Translates the names of network nodes into network IP address.
The following were incorrect answers:
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) - The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a
standardized networking protocol used on Internet Protocol (IP) networks for dynamically distributing
network configuration parameters, such as IP addresses for interfaces and services. With DHCP,
computers request IP addresses and networking parameters automatically from a DHCP server, reducing
the need for a network administrator or a user to configure these settings manually.
Directory Services - A directory service is the software system that stores, organizes and provides access
to information in a directory. In software engineering, a directory is a map between names and values. It
allows the lookup of values given a name, similar to a dictionary. As a word in a dictionary may have
multiple definitions, in a directory, a name may be associated with multiple, different pieces of information.
Likewise, as a word may have different parts of speech and different definitions, a name in a directory may
have many different types of data.
Network Management - In computer networks, network management refers to the activities, methods,
procedures, and tools that pertain to the operation, administration, maintenance, and provisioning of
networked systems. Network management is essential to command and control practices and is generally
carried out of a network operations center.
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
CISA review manual 2014 Page number 258
NEW QUESTION 513
A business application system accesses a corporate database using a single ID and password embedded in a program. Which of the following would provide efficient access control over the organization's data?
- A. Introduce a secondary authentication method such as card swipe
- B. Have users input the ID and password for each database transaction
- C. Apply role-based permissions within the application system
- D. Set an expiration period for the database password embedded in the program
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When a single ID and password are embedded in a program, the best compensating control would be a sound access control over the application layer and procedures to ensure access to data is granted based on a user's role. The issue is user permissions, not authentication, therefore adding a stronger authentication does not improve the situation. Having a user input the ID and password for access would provide a better control because a database log would identify the initiator of the activity. However, this may not be efficient because each transaction would require a separate authentication process. It is a good practice to set an expiration date for a password. However, this might not be practical for an ID automatically logged in from the program. Often, this type of password is set not to expire.
NEW QUESTION 514
As an IS auditor it is very important to understand software release management process. Which of the following software release normally contains small enhancements and fixes?
- A. Major software Release
- B. Minor software Release
- C. Emergency software release
- D. General software Release
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Minor releases incorporate a number of fixes for known problems into the baseline, or trusted state, of an item. Minor releases usually increment the version number at the first decimal place. For example, version
6.10 would change to version 6.20.
For CISA exam you should know below information about software release management:
Software Release Management is the process of ensuring releases can be reliably planned, scheduled and successfully transitioned (deployed) to Test and Live Environments. Software Release Management is not just about "automating the path to production" although that is certainly an important part. It also about adopting a holistic view of application changes, using the "Release" as the container to ensure that changes are packaged, released and tested in a repeatable and controlled manner. Release Management is often likened to the conductor of an orchestra, with the individual changes to be implemented the various instruments within it. Software Release Management is intrinsically linked with the more well understood and adopted Software Change and Configuration Management disciplines.
Software Release management is a process through which software is made available to user. Each update or upgrade of a Configuration Item is referred to as a release.
There are three levels of releases. These levels related to releasing hardware or software into your IT infrastructure. Some may be a single change, others may implement many changes at a time.
Major - A major release usually introduces new capabilities or functions. Major releases may accumulate all the changes from previous minor releases. Major releases advance the version number by a full increment, for example, from version 5.70 to version 6.
Minor - Minor releases incorporate a number of fixes for known problems into the baseline, or trusted state, of an item. Minor releases usually increment the version number at the first decimal place. For example, version 6.10 would change to version 6.20.
Emergency - Emergency releases are quick fixes to repair unexpected problems or temporary measures to prevent the interruption of critical services.
The following were incorrect answers:
Major - A major release usually introduces new capabilities or functions. Major releases may accumulate all the changes from previous minor releases. Major releases advance the version number by a full increment, for example, from version 5.70 to version 6.
Emergency - Emergency releases are quick fixes to repair unexpected problems or temporary measures to prevent the interruption of critical services.
General software Release - Not a valid type of software release.
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
CISA review manual 2014 Page number 244
NEW QUESTION 515
Which of the following is the MOST effective control when granting temporary access to vendors?
- A. Administrator access is provided for a limited period.
- B. User accounts are created with expiration dates and are based on services provided.
- C. Vendor access corresponds to the service level agreement (SLA).
- D. User IDs are deleted when the work is completed.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The most effective control is to ensure that the granting of temporary access is based on services to be provided and that there is an expiration date (hopefully automated) associated with each ID. The SLA may have a provision for providing access, but this is not a control; it would merely define the need for access. Vendors require access for a limited period during the time of service. However, it is important to ensure that the access during this period is monitored. Deleting these user I Dsafter the work is completed is necessary, but if not automated, the deletion could be overlooked.
NEW QUESTION 516
Why is one-time pad not always preferable for encryption (choose all that apply):
- A. it requires internet connectivity.
- B. it requires licensing fee.
- C. it is Microsoft only.
- D. None of the choices.
- E. it is highly inconvenient to use.
- F. it is difficult to use securely.
Answer: E,F
Explanation:
It's possible to protect messages in transit by means of cryptography.
One method of encryption --the one-time pad --has been proven to be unbreakable when correctly used. This method uses a matching pair of key- codes, securely distributed, which are used once-and-only-once to encode and decode a single message. Note that this method is difficult to use securely, and is highly inconvenient as well.
NEW QUESTION 517
......
Protection of Information Assets
This objective has the highest percentage in the exam content, which means that you need to pay more attention to its components. The questions from this topic will measure your knowledge of the following:
- Information asset security and control – privacy principles; data classification; virtual environments; information assets security frameworks, guidelines, and standards; identity & access management; public key infrastructure; data encryption & encryption-related methods; network & endpoint security; physical access & environmental controls;
- Security Event Management – security awareness programs and training; information system attack techniques; security testing tools and methods; security monitoring tools and methods; evidence collection and forensic; incident response management.
You should also be ready that there will be about 39 supporting tasks that include various processes connected to the exam concepts. Therefore, it is important to master all the objectives.
How to study the CISA Exam
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